Bid not alerted interpreted as conventional.
Your advice on the following would be welcomed.
The bidding sequence is as follows:
S (Dealer) W N E
PASS (1S) PASS (2H)
PASS 2S 2NT* (PASS)
3D* PASS
*Not alerted
**5-5-2-1 and 7 hcps
When questioned at close of bidding South claimed that (a) He took his partner’s 2NT as a conventional 2NT overcall (b) he felt he could not alert the call as there was no partnership agreement. Has any infraction occurred here?
Kevin Juventin
Latest Posts on this Thread
- NICK WHITTEN10 Mar 2023 at 08:23PM
I think South should alert whenever unsure of the agreement or unsure if a specific agreement actually exists
And if asked should say "we don't have..." or "I'm not sure of..." "an agreement"However, (and I could be wrong here) I believe such a use of a NT overcall to show minors (or anything other than a strong natural bid) is so commonplace it would be hard to justify an adjustment to EW if they missed out on bidding a higher contract fearing North had a lot of points
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