weighted score

 Looking at examples of weighted scores 

For example

The travaillor shows

1430 x 2

680 x 5

650 x 2

-100 x 2

 

If you calculate the percentages of those scores you get 1430 18%, 680 46% 650 18% and -100 18%

The estimate in the example is tha 1430 occures 30%,, 680 40%, 650 20% and -100 10%

What really puzzles me is why has the probability of bidding and making a slam been increased by that much, a slam is often hard to find and going 1 down in a slam is quite a possibility. For me the probability of bidding four making 6 is much more likely. In the example two pairs bid slam making and 2 pairs bid slam going 1 down

Looking at that example and all the examples are similar. It seem to be just the opinion of the director at the time, it is not properly weighted. So if I get a question to calculating a weighted score what do I base my weighting on

Thanks Marion

Started by MARION ARLIDGE on 12 Nov 2020 at 09:19PM

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  1. NICK WHITTEN13 Nov 2020 at 08:17AM


    Hi Marion

    Yes I understand it IS just the directors opinion

    There will nearly always be a bit of guesswork involved in which case the benefit of any doubt goes to the non-offending side


    I see your exam is this weekend
    Best of luck smile

    If you pass with flying colours (which would not surprise me) I hope you keep on asking questions
    Your recent contributions have certainly kept this forum alive

    cheers
    Nick

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